Why is one not trusted to testify about liened property he sold to another without guaranteeing the property? If one sold movable property to another and a non Jew claimed rights to it, does the original owner need to compensate or help the buyer prove that it was his? Does it depend on details of how it was taken and whether or not the buyer knew that the item really belonged to the Jew when he bought it (meaning – if it was obvious that the non Jew is falsely claiming rights to it, then the original owner has no responsibility). There is a debate about whether non Jews are always suspected of making a false claim or not. A person who does a service for another does not have rights of ownership to items that one gave them. Raba limits this to a case where one gave it to the laborer with witnesses. Abaye disagrees and claims that it applies also in a case where it was given to the laborer not in the presence of witnesses. Sources are brought to contradict each of the opinions but are resolved.
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